• 试题 ID 13274


设 $I_1=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{\tan x}{x} \mathrm{~d} x, I_2=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(\frac{\tan x}{x}\right)^2 \mathrm{~d} x, I_3=\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{4}} \frac{\tan x^2}{x^2} \mathrm{~d} x$, 则有
A $I_1>I_2>I_3$
B $I_3>I_2>I_1$
C $I_2>I_1>I_3$
D $I_1>I_3>I_2$
E
F
答案:

答案与解析仅限VIP可见

解析:

答案与解析仅限VIP可见